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Human Anatomy Final Exam 2012 (108 possible points; 105 graded points)

Multiple Choice (1.5 points)
Choose the best response that completes the statement or answers the question.
 

 1. 
The three general functions of the nervous system are
a.
reflexive, predictive, and motor.
b.
sensory, motor, and predictive.
c.
sensory, motor, and integrative.
d.
emotion, memory, and movement.
e.
sensory, motor, and manipulative.
 

 2. 
The part of the peripheral nervous system that brings information to the central nervous system is the
a.
efferent division.
b.
motor division.
c.
afferent division.
d.
autonomic division.
e.
somatic division.
 

 3. 
Which of the following is a function of neurons?
a.
phagocytosis
b.
secretion of cerebrospinal fluid
c.
protection for neuroglia
d.
support
e.
information processing
 

 4. 
Which of the following is an example of a glial cell?
a.
astrocytes
b.
microglia
c.
oligodendrocytes
d.
Schwann cells
e.
all of the above
 

 5. 
Clusters of ribosomes in neurons are called
a.
synapses.
b.
neurofibrils.
c.
Nissl bodies.
d.
microglia.
e.
neurofilaments.
 

 6. 
Neurons that have one axon and one dendrite with the soma between them are called
a.
multipolar.
b.
bipolar.
c.
unipolar.
d.
tripolar.
e.
polypolar.
 

 7. 
Neurons that have several dendrites and a single axon extending away from the soma are called
a.
unipolar.
b.
polypolar.
c.
multipolar.
d.
bipolar.
e.
tripolar.
 

 8. 
Interneurons
a.
are found between neurons and their effectors.
b.
only connect motor neurons to other motor neurons.
c.
carry only sensory impulses.
d.
carry only motor impulses.
e.
are found only in the central nervous system.
 

 9. 
Most neurons do not have centrioles. This observation explains
a.
the ability of neurons to communicate with each other.
b.
why neurons grow such long axons.
c.
the conducting ability of neurons.
d.
the ability of neurons to live long lives.
e.
why these neurons cannot divide.
 

 10. 
The most rapid action potentials are conducted on
a.
dendrites.
b.
thin, unmyelinated axons.
c.
thick, myelinated axons.
d.
thin, myelinated axons.
e.
thick, unmyelinated axons.
 

 11. 
If a resting potential becomes more negative, the cell
a.
repolarizes.
b.
summates.
c.
refracts.
d.
hyperpolarizes.
e.
depolarizes.
 

 12. 
The entire spinal cord is divided into ________ segments.
a.
12
b.
35
c.
5
d.
25
e.
31
 

 13. 
Which of the following link(s) the cerebral hemispheres with the brain stem?
a.
medulla oblongata
b.
cerebellum
c.
diencephalon
d.
pons
e.
midbrain
 

 14. 
The part of the brain that functions to control skeletal muscles is the
a.
midbrain.
b.
diencephalons.
c.
medulla oblongata.
d.
thalamus.
e.
cerebral cortex.
 

 15. 
A neural cortex is found on the surface of the
a.
cerebellum.
b.
midbrain.
c.
cerebrum.
d.
both A and C
e.
pons.
 

 16. 
The area anterior to the central sulcus is the
a.
frontal lobe.
b.
postcentral gyrus.
c.
temporal lobe.
d.
occipital lobe.
e.
parietal lobe.
 

 17. 
The primary connection between cerebral hemispheres is the
a.
corpus callosum.
b.
precentral gyrus.
c.
midbrain.
d.
cerebellum.
e.
postcentral gyrus.
 

 18. 
The highest levels of information processing occur in the
a.
cerebellum.
b.
medulla.
c.
midbrain.
d.
cerebrum.
e.
spinal cord.
 

 19. 
After suffering a stroke, Cindy finds that she cannot move her right arm. This would suggest that the stroke damage is in the area of the
a.
left frontal lobe.
b.
right temporal lobe.
c.
right frontal lobe.
d.
occipital lobe.
e.
left temporal lobe.
 

 20. 
Sensory receptors that respond to changes in blood pressure are called
a.
chemoreceptors.
b.
nociceptors.
c.
proprioceptors.
d.
thermoreceptors.
e.
baroreceptors.
 

 21. 
Chemoreceptors are located in the
a.
respiratory control center of the medulla.
b.
carotid and aortic bodies.
c.
special senses of taste and smell.
d.
A and B only
e.
all of the above
 

 22. 
Which of the following concerning olfaction is false?
a.
Human power of olfaction is as powerful as that of most other mammals.
b.
Molecules to be smelled must first dissolve in the mucus covering the olfactory receptors.
c.
Humans may have as many as 20 million olfactory receptors.
d.
Olfactory receptors are highly modified neurons.
e.
Olfactory stimuli do not pass through the thalamus before journeying to the olfactory cortex.
 

 23. 
Which of the following is part of the inner tunic of the eye?
a.
conjunctiva
b.
retina
c.
lateral rectus muscle
d.
sclera
e.
iris
 

 24. 
A structure that is located at the medial canthus and contains glands that produce a gritty secretion is the
a.
conjunctiva.
b.
sclera.
c.
tear gland.
d.
lacrimal caruncle.
e.
superior eye lid.
 

 25. 
A blind spot in the retina is found where
a.
the optic nerve fibers exit the eye.
b.
amacrine cells are located.
c.
rod cells are clustered to form the macula.
d.
ganglion cells synapse with bipolar cells.
e.
the fovea is located.
 

 26. 
The sense of hearing is provided by receptors of the
a.
outer ear.
b.
middle ear.
c.
inner ear.
d.
pinna.
e.
semicircular canals.
 

 27. 
A movement in the vertical plane, such as falling straight down while the body maintains the anatomical position, would be sensed by the
a.
supporting cells.
b.
cochlea.
c.
utricles.
d.
saccules.
e.
organ of Corti.
 

 28. 
The actions of hormones
a.
are slower to react than the nervous system.
b.
cause changes to the metabolism of the cells.
c.
last longer than actions of the nervous system.
d.
are more widespread than those of the nervous system.
e.
all of the above
 

 29. 
Hormone concentration levels are regulated by
a.
positive feedback mechanism.
b.
the demands of the cell.
c.
the amount of circulating hormone.
d.
body temperature.
e.
negative feedback mechanism.
 

 30. 
The most complex endocrine responses involve the
a.
pancreas.
b.
suprarenal glands.
c.
thymus.
d.
hypothalamus.
e.
thyroid gland.
 

 31. 
Which of the following primarily targets the ovaries and testes?
a.
follicle-stimulating hormone
b.
insulin
c.
growth hormone
d.
gonadotropin-releasing hormone
e.
thyroxine
 

 32. 
This hormone increases the metabolic activity in most body cells is
a.
PRL.
b.
LH.
c.
FSH.
d.
TSH.
e.
ACTH.
 

 33. 
The pituitary hormone that stimulates increases in bone and muscle mass is
a.
ACTH.
b.
LH.
c.
MSH.
d.
TSH.
e.
GH.
 

 34. 
Marissa has had her thyroid gland removed because of a malignant tumor. She takes synthetic thyroid hormone to replace the thyroxine that her thyroid gland would have produced, but she is worried about her blood calcium since she has lost her source of calcitonin. Does she need to worry about this problem?
a.
No, as long as she still has functional parathyroid glands she will maintain proper levels of calcium.
b.
Yes, without the calcitonin she will suffer heart failure.
c.
No, the synthetic thyroid hormone will also control the calcium.
d.
Yes, without the calcitonin, high blood levels of calcium will cause convulsions.
e.
No, hormones from the liver and kidneys will regulate calcium through the intestinal tract.
 

 35. 
The alpha cells of the pancreas produce
a.
rennin.
b.
parathyroid hormone.
c.
ADH.
d.
insulin.
e.
glucagon.
 

 36. 
The pancreatic hormone that causes blood sugar levels to lower is
a.
cortisol.
b.
glucagon.
c.
growth hormone.
d.
insulin.
e.
erythropoietin.
 

 37. 
Functions of the blood include
a.
transport of nutrients and wastes.
b.
body defense.
c.
restricting fluid loss.
d.
regulation of pH and electrolyte concentration of interstitial fluids.
e.
all of the above
 

 38. 
Blood is composed of
a.
formed elements.
b.
plasma.
c.
cell fragments.
d.
blood cells.
e.
all of the above
 

 39. 
The function of white blood cells is to
a.
carry oxygen from the lungs to the body's cells.
b.
carry nutrients from the digestive system to the body's cells.
c.
defend the body against infectious organisms.
d.
remove nitrogenous wastes from active tissues.
e.
remove carbon dioxide from active cells.
 

 40. 
The clotting proteins in blood plasma are
a.
collagen.
b.
fibrinogens.
c.
transport proteins.
d.
globulins.
e.
albumins.
 

 41. 
Biconcave cells without a nucleus are called
a.
neutrophils.
b.
eosinophils.
c.
monocytes.
d.
erythrocytes.
e.
lymphocytes.
 

 42. 
Stem cells responsible for the production of white blood cells are found in the
a.
spleen.
b.
liver.
c.
lymphoid tissue.
d.
thymus.
e.
bone marrow.
 

 43. 
The function of hemoglobin is to
a.
protect the body against infectious agents.
b.
aid in the process of blood clotting.
c.
carry nutrients from the intestine to the body's cells.
d.
carry oxygen.
e.
all of the above
 

 44. 
EPO is released when
a.
carbon dioxide levels in the blood increase.
b.
protein levels in the blood increase.
c.
oxygen levels in the blood increase.
d.
oxygen levels in the blood decrease.
e.
carbon dioxide levels in the blood decrease.
 

 45. 
A person who lives in a city at sea level and vacations in the Rocky Mountains would experience an increase in
a.
red blood cell count.
b.
white blood cell count.
c.
the density of the bone marrow.
d.
the number of platelets in the blood.
e.
the number of lymphocytes in the blood.
 

 46. 
A person's blood type is determined by the
a.
shape of the red blood cells.
b.
number of specific molecules on the plasma membrane.
c.
chemical character of the hemoglobin.
d.
presence or absence of specific molecules on the plasma membrane.
e.
size of the red blood cells.
 

 47. 
Agglutinogens of the various blood types are examples of
a.
antibodies.
b.
white blood cells.
c.
antigens.
d.
proteins.
e.
none of the above
 

 48. 
The following is a list of the steps involved in the process of hemostasis and clot removal:
1. coagulation
2. fibrinolysis
3. vascular spasm
4. retraction
5. platelet phase
The correct sequence of these steps is
a.
3, 4, 5, 2, 1.
b.
4, 3, 5, 2, 1.
c.
3, 5, 1, 4, 2.
d.
2, 3, 5, 1, 4.
e.
5, 1, 4, 2, 3.
 

 49. 
The inherited condition resulting from the inadequate production of clotting factors is termed
a.
thalassemia.
b.
jaundice.
c.
hemophilia.
d.
anemia.
e.
none of the above
 

 50. 
The heart can be found in the
a.
abdominopelvic cavity.
b.
peritoneal cavity.
c.
mediastinum.
d.
pleural cavity.
e.
none of the above
 

 51. 
The functions of the venae cavae include which of the following?
a.
removing excess fluid from the heart chambers
b.
returning blood to the right atrium
c.
pumping blood into circulation
d.
preventing expansion of the heart
e.
anchoring the heart to surrounding structures
 

 52. 
The tricuspid valve is located
a.
between the right atrium and right ventricle.
b.
in the opening of the aorta.
c.
where the vena cavae join the right atrium.
d.
in the opening of the pulmonary trunk.
e.
between the left atrium and left ventricle.
 

 53. 
The function of an atrium is to
a.
pump blood into the systemic circuit.
b.
collect blood.
c.
pump blood to the lungs.
d.
pump blood to the heart muscle.
e.
all of the above
 

 54. 
The pulmonary arteries carry blood to the
a.
lungs.
b.
brain.
c.
intestines.
d.
heart.
e.
liver.
 

 55. 
The heart wall is composed of ________ layers of tissue.
a.
three
b.
four
c.
six
d.
five
e.
two
 

 56. 
Blood flowing from the left atrium to the left ventricle flows through the ________ valve.
a.
bicuspid
b.
mitral
c.
left AV
d.
all of the above
e.
none of the above
 

 57. 
Depolarization of the atria is represented on an electrocardiogram by the
a.
PR complex.
b.
S wave.
c.
QRS complex.
d.
P wave.
e.
T wave.
 

 58. 
If the connection between the SA node and AV node becomes blocked,
a.
tachycardia will occur.
b.
the ventricles will beat faster.
c.
the stroke volume will increase.
d.
the ventricles will beat independently of the atria.
e.
the ventricular rate of contraction will not be affected.
 

 59. 
The QRS wave on an ECG tracing represents
a.
ventricular repolarization.
b.
ventricular depolarization.
c.
atrial repolarization.
d.
atrial depolarization.
e.
ventricular contraction.
 

 60. 
The second heart sound is heard when
a.
the atria contract.
b.
the AV valves close.
c.
blood enters the aorta.
d.
the AV valves open.
e.
the semilunar valves close.
 

 61. 
Heart valves open and close because of
a.
pressure differences.
b.
contractions of the papillary muscles.
c.
signals from the SA node.
d.
heart contractions.
e.
the moderator band.
 

 62. 
Information received by the brain concerning internal or external environmental conditions is called a(n)
a.
response.
b.
effector.
c.
sensation.
d.
stimulus.
e.
action potential.
 

Matching (1.5 points)
 
 
Match the cranial nerve with the organs and/or tissues it innervates.
a.
optic
d.
accessory
b.
abducens
e.
trochlear
c.
facial
 

 63. 

 palate, pharynx, larynx, sternocleidomastoid, trapezius
 

 64. 

 superior oblique muscle
 

 65. 

 retina of eye
 

 66. 

 lateral rectus muscle of eye
 

 67. 

 taste receptors, lacrimal gland, sublingual glands
 
 
Match the cranial nerve with the organs and /or tissues it innervates.
a.
Occulomotor
d.
Vagus
b.
Trigeminal
e.
Vestibulocochlear
c.
Hypoglossal
 

 68. 

 3 out of 4 rectus muscles of the eye
 

 69. 

 Tongue muscles
 

 70. 

 Teeth, muscles of mastication
 

 71. 

 Ear
 

 72. 

 Thoracic and abdominal organs
 



 
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